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originally posted in: I am an avid Christian; AMA
5/31/2015 7:40:03 AM
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Not as much as you may think it does. There are differences and I've actually read about changes in sentence structures and whatnot that give them different sounding meanings compared to one another. But as a whole, it doesn't affect it much. It's the same stories and parables either way, some are simply easier for me to break down and digest.
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  • So how do you know which is more right or wrong? Is it a matter of picking and choosing to tailor your own feelings?

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  • You can study the Hebrew language and compare the meanings to the translations

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  • So if you do that and find one 'more correct' does that automatically make the others invalid?

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  • It's not that it's "more correct". I'll give you the simplest of examples: John 17:4 ESV: “I glorified you on earth, having accomplished the work that you gave me to do” NIV: “I have brought you glory on earth by completing the work you gave me to do” The sentence structure is different but the same meaning is carried through. I don't think you should think of it as manipulation of the words, simply fitting for the different personalities, regions, and even what generation you are from. These are two versions I stick to. KJV is traditional. I can read from it sometimes but I feel like sometimes I get lost in trying to translate things instead of actually seeing the true meaning to what is being said, which is why I don't read KJV very often. John 17:25 KJV: “O righteous Father, the world knew thee not, but I knew thee; and these knew that thou didst send me” ESV: “O righteous Father, even though the world does not know you, I know you, and these know that you have sent me” NIV: “Righteous Father, though the world does not know you, I know you, and they know that you have sent me” But all in all, you can see that there isn't a ton of difference other than the use of words and structure.

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