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2/12/2015 3:44:14 PM
14
Are both of these statements equally illogical?
Statement 1:
[spoiler]A person firing a gun into a crowd of unarmed individuals will have the same effect as if said shooter was using a knife/axe/bat/other similar item.[/spoiler]
Statement 2:
[spoiler]A person firing a gun into an unarmed crowd will have the same effect as if the same person was firing a gun into a crowd of people who were also armed with guns. [/spoiler]
Inb4 Replies are exactly the same as those of every gun control debate ever.
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Edited by Abject Tangent: 2/12/2015 7:53:01 PMThe first one is slightly more illogical but not because of why you would think it is. Here's my reasoning. If you are shooting bullets into an unarmed crowd it would cause a lot of damage and injuries. However, if you are shooting knives, axes, or a bat at the same rate of fire and/or velocity as the bullets, then that is definitely more dangerous and would have a much worse effect than the bullets.
