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How exactly can we know if these disorders really are culturally specific? Couldn't they just as likely be genetic? I'm mostly referring to the anorexia example and how it doesn't affect the American hispanic population as much. Certainly they are intermingled with western culture so if anorexia really is cultural rather than genetic, then they should be affected as well. Although I guess the definition of culture isn't the same for everyone (some people would include genetic differences as part of culture). In science, culture is defined as passed down information by word of mouth or other non-genetic means from generation to generation.